JESUS DID NOT OBSERVE THE PASSOVER - ACCORDING TO SOME Part Three We are told by the House of Yahweh that the literal translation of LUKE 22:11 is: " ....Says to you the Teacher: Where is the guest room in which the Passover together the disciples of Me to eat?" Or, as they go on to say, correctly translated : "Then you will say to the owner of that house: The Teacher says to you; Where is the guest room where My disciples may eat the passover together?" We need to use the rule of CONTEXT reading any verse before jumping to technical conclusions based upon so-called grammar rules, for the grammar MAY be technically correct but the context proves (and other verses elsewhere) another story altogether. HERE IS THE CONTEXT READING AS TRANSLATED BY GEORGE RICKER BERRY FROM HIS GREEK/ENGLISH INTERLINEAR. " And came the day of unleavened in which was needful to be killed the passover (fully explained by myself and Fred Coulter in other studies - Keith Hunt), And He sent Peter and John, saying, Having gone prepare FOR US the PASSOVER, that WE may EAT. But they said to Him, Where wilest thou we should prepare? And He said to them, Lo, on your having entered into the city will meet you a man, a pitcher of water carrying; follow him into the house where he enters; and you shall say to the master of the house, Says to thee the teacher, Where is the guest-chamber where the PASSOVER with my disciples may eat? And he you will show upper room a large furnished, there prepare. And having gone they found as He had said to them; and they PREPARED THE PASSOVER. And when was come the hour, He reclined , and the twelve apostles with him. And He said to them, With DESIRE I desired THIS PASSOVER to eat WITH YOU before I suffer, For I say to you, that no more not at all WILL EAT of it UNTIL it be fulfilled in the Kingdom of God....." THE TRANSLATION FROM THE GREEK BY GREEN Sr. is almost the exact same as above, but he used none of the "thee" and "thou" words, but more modern English. Regardless of some technical Greek grammar rule in some part of some verse, Luke was inspired by what he wrote in the CONTEXT with other Greek words to make it very clear to us that, Jesus DID EAT AND PARTAKE OF AND OBSERVE THE PASSOVER with His disciples that evening of the 14th, the day when they killed the Passover lambs. According to the booklet by the House of Yahweh the pronoun "I" has been added as the subject of each of the verses we have looked at, when it does not appear in the Greek, the verb not being in the nominative case (the only case where "I" is understood to be the subject of the verb) in each. So they want to get technical. Sounds pretty good to those scared stiff by Greek technicalities. But you need to ask yourself: From where do they get this Greek technicality? Did it come from MODERN Greek? Did it come from CLASSICAL Greek? Well if it did, the NT was not written in either modern or classical Greek, but it was written in COMMON Greek, the STREET Greek of the first century. Then it may be proved this rule of grammar was within the Common Greek of the time Luke and the others wrote their Gospels. SO WHAT I ASK ! The writers may have stayed within a certain rule of grammar in a certain section of a certain verse, just to be technical, but that does not mean they were trying to prove to you that Jesus did not eat the Passover that night while His disciples did. OTHER VERSE THEY USED IN THE CONTEXT PROVES THEY HAD NO SUCH TEACHING IN THEIR MINDS!! Other words in the context show they understood that Jesus DID EAT the Passover that night along with His disciples, and that He said He would NOT EAT of it again UNTIL it was fulfilled in the Kingdom of God. Some Greek scholars want to make a big thing about, claim it proves as a doctrine, the Holy Spirit is a PERSON (as much as the Father and Christ are Spirit persons) because some NT writers (such as John) called the Spirit "HE" and not "it" in some verses. They also were writing technically, from a rule of the Greek grammar (explained in my studies on the Holy Spirit, and by the old WCG in their past literature). It did not mean they were trying to prove from this rule of Greek grammar that the Holy Spirit was a MALE PERSON. Many other verses must be brought to bear on that subject as to whether the Holy Spirit is a third member of the literal personal Godhead, not just a figure of speech grammar, that is also found in a number of other languages, such as Spanish. The Greek NT can be at times strange and somewhat bewildering to us English writing people. First, if we want to talk about "rules" - the Hebrew and Greek of the OT and NT had no punctuation! It had no sentencing, just one letter after another in the original manuscripts. Enough to make the average English reader and writer go "bug- eyed" and pull his hair out in disconcerting bewilderment. What "rules" of grammar were they using for such a way to write? And besides all that, who was to say that writers of the Bible HAD to OBEY whatever is claimed today was the rule of grammar? How do they know it was the rule of grammar back then? Has a text book on B.C. Hebrew grammar or first century NT Greek grammar been preserved for us? I have never heard there is such an old book in some library. But suppose there is, does that mean people HAD to obey it in every instant of every phrase and sentence they wrote? OF COURSE NOT! Not any more than I have to obey the English rules of grammar. There is no one standing over me to FORCE me to keep and obey the so-called English rules of grammar, if I so choose not to. Looking at Greek grammar can be educational at times IF kept in balance and if it does not become an island unto itself to establish doctrine upon. Most English grammar teachers would have thrown their book and their desk and chair at HWA for the way he wrote booklets, with CAPITALIZED words and "-" all over the place. When I first got some of his booklets and gave them to a friend, his first statement to me on seeing them was: "He writes just like he preaches." The Internet, I discovered when I first came on line, some two years ago, has some rule that says CAPITALIZATION of letters is "Shouting." Some guy or gal somewhere at some time decided, in the corner of their dark and dusty room, to make this a rule for talking in Internet space. Are we FORCED to obey that rule? Not on your life, and many of us on this forum do not! We write with CAPITALS not to shout but for EMPHASIS, as did old HWA. So rules can be okay in grammar, but they are not the Laws of God, and to take some grammar rule in some part of some sentence and close your eyes to the context and other verses on the subject, will sooner or later lead you down the garden path into the thorn bushes of false ideas and doctrines. Such has been done by the House of Yahweh in their teaching that Jesus did not partake of the Passover with His disciples on that last day of His physical life on this earth. Such an idea is contrary to the context of the Gospels and to other verses using other words within the Gospels. The PLAIN TRUTH is there to see on this subject if your eyes are open to see it, and you remember to read the context. .................................